What is the meaning of “Husband of One Wife”?
The phrase comes from the qualification of elders and deacons in 1 Timothy 3:2; 3:12; Titus 1:6 the Greek translation of (mia/j gunaiko.j a;ndra) literally means, “husband of one wife”. The phrase as presented is the same for elders and deacons.
Our goal is always to allow the biblical authors relay their authorial intent within their own biblical theology and it is ours to understand their interpretation.
1. There are some that would say this phrase would mean that those who have been divorced would disqualify him from being either an elder or deacon, since they would be the husband of two wives. This would be an unlikely interpretation for several reasons:
a. In context with the rest of the qualifications, Paul is referring to a man’s present status, not his entire past life. The language used is interpreted as accusative, present tense. There is no assumption that Paul is referring to his past or entire life.[1] If we did refer to the entire life of a person, there would be nobody eligible to be an elder or deacon.
b. Paul could have easily put a prohibition on divorced men, but he does not. See Hebrews 10:2; Heb. 9:26; and Jude 3 for the Greek construction of perfect participles to mean committing the action and continuing it. The language for divorce was already present in that day (c.f. 1 Cor. 7), so if Paul really wanted to say that a man cannot divorce, he could have simply just said it instead of using ambiguous language.[2]
c. MacArthur writes, “Some people think ‘the husband of one wife’ means that if the pastor has been widowed and remarried, he is disqualified. Romans 7:1-6 makes it clear, however, that if a man’s wife dies, he is no longer bound by that union. So that cannot be the meaning here.”[3]
d. For a man who has been divorced prior to conversion, there ought to be a significant period of time in which he has been able to heal from that period of his life. The qualification still stands within the greater list of requirements given in 1 Timothy and Titus. The change of character is that which the fruit of the Holy Spirit is evident.
2. There is another interpretation that the phrase “the husband of but one wife” means that the man must be married. However, this interpretation is quite unlikely. It is clear that Paul was not married as well as the Lord Jesus. A better interpretation for these verses would be that if a man be married, let him not be a polygamist nor unfaithful to his wife. The command is not one of absolute exclusivity. To further argue the point that a deacon must be married would also be incorrect. There is no reason for Paul to put the requirement of deacon higher than that of an elder when clearly the elder position is to govern the New Testament church as an overseer. Furthermore, the issue of deacon and elder is not contingent on their marital status, but like the rest of the qualification, the context refers to the integrity of his life in Christ.
a. We would also have to assume that Paul knew the critics that would be reading his letter. Because of the high elevation of the natural order of that of an elder, Paul could have easily required marriage. I would agree with Theodore of Mopsuestia when he writes, (o]j agagomenoj gunaika swfronwj ebiw meta tauthj prosecwn auth kai mecrij authj orizwn thj fusewj thn orexin) “He who marries one wife, lives with her prudently, keeps to her, and directs to her the desire of nature”[4] Again, if Paul wanted the elder/deacon to be single, he would have simply told them, “pastors have to be married or be the husband of a wife.”
b. To continue to argue that single men or married men who have no children cannot be elders/deacons would be to go against 1 Corinthians 7:8-35. Strauch states, “the qualifications regarding marriage and children should not be construed as commands to marry and to have children…single men and childless, married men can certainly be pastor elders…of course the sexual conduct and home management of single and childless men must be above reproach, just as it must be above reproach for married men who have children.”[5] Again, to say that an elder must be married would contradict what he teaches in 1 Cor. 7 (c.f. Matt. 19:12)
c. Systematic theologian, Millard Erickson also agrees, “that he Greek phrase (mias gunaikos andra) should not be seen as prescribing that a church officeholder be a married man, but that he be what we would call a “one woman” type of man. That is, Paul is not prescribing a minimum of one wife, but a maximum.”[6]
3. Thus the best interpretation of this phrase is that of marital fidelity in marriage and purity. We should interpret this passage, within its context and with Paul’s understanding, as: If a man is married, he must be faithful to his wife. If a man has children, he must manage his household well.
[1] Alcorn, Randy. “Meaning of “The Husband of One Wife” in 1 Timothy 3” http://www.epm.org/resources/2010/Feb/23/meaning-husband-one-wife-1-timothy-3
[2] Grudem, Wayne. Systematic Theology. (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1994), 916-917.
[3] MacArthur, John. Pastoral Ministry (Nashville: Thomas Nelson Publishing, 2005), 68-69.
[4] Dibelius, Martin and Hans Conzelmann. The Pastoral Epistles. (Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1972), 52.
[5] Strauch, Alexander Biblical Eldership. (Colorado Springs: Lewis & Roth Publishers, 1995), 77-78.
[6] Erickson, Millard. Christian Theology. (Grand Rapids: Baker Academics, 1998 ), 575.
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